IIRC, didn't William the Conqueror sail east across the English
Channel in 1066? And didn't he set out from what is now Normandy?
I'm having cognitive dissonance now. How can the British ruin
someplace that a very significant number of them originated from to
begin with? Perhaps I'm over-simplifying this. ;-)
Yeah, it's amazing how a thousand years of intervening history can
"complexify" something so simple...
Garth
Well as I understand it Guillaume and his conquerors weren't actually
French, they were Vikings who had previously headed south for better
weather. Normans = Norsemen. As we weren't conquered by the French we
are perfectly entitled to ruin France!
To have been conquered by the French would have been galling indeed :)
Roger
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